Colorectal Quiz: May 29, 2023

Ron Reeder • June 5, 2023

Quiz for May 22:

A patient comes to you with HD diagnosed at another hospital, with a rectal biopsy, sigmoid biopsy and appendix; all showing no ganglion cells. Based on these biopsies, the hospital determined the patient had total colonic HD. The child is 8-months-old and is doing well on irrigations. How would you proceed?

Answer for May 22nd Quiz

For this patient who is doing well with irrigations, he is not distended, and is growing with good nutritional parameters. His contrast study that appears to show a transition zone in the transverse colon, I would not conclude this is total colonic HD with these data. Sampling the appendix is not a good choice as many appendices are aganglionic [See: https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/26171305/ - Victoria Alison Lane, Marc A Levitt, Peter Baker, Peter Minneci, Katherine Deans. The Appendix and Aganglionosis. A Note of Caution-How the Histology Can Mislead the Surgeon in Total Colonic Hirschsprung Disease. European J Pediatr Surg Rep 2015 Jun;3(1):3-6]. I would first map the colon and take biopsies at the splenic flexure, mid-transverse colon, and distal right colon. After final pathology of these specimens, I could then determine an HD pull-through plan.

 

Quiz for May 29:

OK, you have now done the colonic mapping on this patient. And the biopsies come back no ganglion cells at the splenic flexure, mid-transverse colon and distal right colon. How would you proceed?

How would you handle this case?

Colorectal Conundrum: January 29, 2024

By Ron Reeder • January 29, 2024
Colorectal Conundrum for January 29: A male with a rectoperineal fistula undergoes a PSARP with mobilization of the rectum, both anterior and posterior rectal walls. In the days following surgery he starts to drain urine around the anoplasty consistent with a urethral injury. He is also voiding via the penis. A cystogram is shown below. How would you manage this situation? Answer: This patient has suffered from a urethral injury, and urine is draining out the posterior urethra into the perineum around the anoplasty. The key first step is to divert the urine with a suprapubic tube. A colostomy is not necessarily needed. The fistula might heal with diversion. If after a month or so a cystogram shows the persistence of the fistula, then a redo is needed with re-mobilization of the rectum, fully lifting the anterior rectal wall off of the urinary tract, and repair the urethra, with coverage of the posterior urethra with an ischiorectal fat pad. Then a voiding trial a month later with ultimate removal of the SP tube.

Colorectal Conundrum: January 22, 2024

By Ron Reeder • January 22, 2024
Colorectal Conundrum for January 22nd: In the previous week’s case, of an imperforate hymen, the MRI showed dilation all the way down to the perineum. Management involved a perineal – introital – incision to drain the fluid. If that were not the case and you had a dilated vagina but the distal extent was far away from the introital area, how might you handle that hydrocolpos? Answer: If this were a case of hydrolpos with normal anus and normal urethra, and the vagina cannot be drained by the introitus like an imperforate hymen, then drainage needs to be from above. IR or laparoscopy is an ideal approach to get a drain in the dilated structure (remember this could be bilateral, so both sides may need to be drained. Drainage is to relieve distension and most concerning its potential cause of distal ureteral obstruction causing hydronephrosis. Once the material hormones have dissipated the hydrocolpos will resolve and can be dealt with later in life via a laparoscopic distal vaginal pull-through, after the onset of puberty. In such a patient, I would follow closely with ultrasound 6 months after thelarche (breast budding).

Colorectal Conundrum: January 16, 2024

By Ron Reeder • January 16, 2024
Colorectal Conundrum for January 16: A newborn female is noted to have abdominal distension. On exam the uretha and anus are normal, and there appears to be a bulge in the hymen. The has an MRI with the image shown below. What would be your treatment plan? What are the variations in such a case and how would you manage each? Answer: This could be a case of imperforate hymen, but the MRI is key – how high up is the obstruction? How large is the hydrocolpos? In this case, it appears that a perineal incision might all that is needed as the dilation extends all the way down to the perineum. That is the most common scenario. An incision at the level of the hymen should drain out the fluid and no further intervention should be needed. Of course a careful exam needs to check to be certain you see a urethra – sometimes such a bulge could be a paraurethral cyst. For the next week’s question – what would you do if the perineal approach was inadequate – i.e. could not reach the dilated lumen.
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